Fluid volume excess can manifest with various symptoms depending on the severity and underlying cause. The following symptoms may be exhibited by a client experiencing fluid volume excess:
Edema: Swelling in the extremities, hands, feet, ankles, or even the face.Weight gain: Sudden or rapid weight gain due to fluid accumulation.Shortness of breath: Difficulty breathing or increased respiratory effort.Elevated blood pressure: Hypertension may result from fluid overload.Jugular vein distention: Visible distention of the jugular veins in the neck.Fatigue and weakness: Feeling tired or weak due to circulatory strain.Increased urine output: Excessive urination as the body attempts to eliminate excess fluid.It is important for healthcare professionals to assess these symptoms and promptly intervene to manage fluid volume excess, address the underlying cause, and prevent further complications.
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the nurse is collecting data from a client suspected of having ovarian cancer. which question would the nurse ask the client to elicit information specifically related to this disorder?
Have any of your lymph nodes swollen? is the nurse question the patient to get details about this disease specifically. Nursing interventions that prevent vasodilation, lessen anxiety, and maintain skin integrity and hydration all help to lessen the discomfort of pruritus.
Apply the prescribed antipyretic and let your main healthcare practitioner know about the modification. In order to care for a patient with cancer, nurses must fulfil a vast array of duties. Assessment, assistance for therapies (such as chemotherapy, radiation, etc.), pain management, boosting nutrition, and emotional support are all included in nursing care plans for cancer patients. Data collection on the respiratory system is of the utmost importance because it is a major cause of death in cervical cord injury.
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the nurse is educating unlicensed nursing assistive personnel (nap) about recording output for a client. what fluids should the nurse include in the output for accuracy? select all that apply.
When educating unlicensed nursing assistive personnel (NAP) about recording output for a client, the nurse should emphasize the importance of including the following fluids in the output measurement for accuracy:
A. Urine output: This includes any voided urine or urine collected through a catheter.
B. Gastric drainage: This refers to any fluids drained from the stomach, such as through a nasogastric tube or gastric tube.
C. Emesis (vomitus): This includes any vomited material that is expelled by the client.
D. Wound drainage: This pertains to any fluid or exudate draining from a wound or surgical site.
E. Drainage from surgical drains: This involves any fluid collected from surgical drains, such as Jackson-Pratt or Hemovac drains.
F. Diarrhea: This refers to loose or watery stool that is passed by the client.
Accurately measuring and recording these fluids helps assess the client's fluid balance, organ function, and response to treatment. It allows for early identification of potential issues or complications, ensuring appropriate interventions and care planning.
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Complete Question:
The nurse is educating unlicensed nursing assistive personnel (NAP) about recording output for a client. Which of the following fluids should the nurse include in the output measurement for accuracy? Select all that apply.
A. Urine output
B. Gastric drainage
C. Emesis (vomitus)
D. Wound drainage
E. Drainage from surgical drains
F. Diarrhea
the maternity nurse is describing the ovarian cycle to a group of nursing students and asks a nursing student to identify the phases of the cycle. which phases stated by the nursing student indicate a need for further teaching in this area? select all that apply.
phases stated by the nursing student indicate a need for further teaching in this area are: Secretory phase , Proliferative phase (Option 3,4)
The correct phases of the ovarian cycle are as follows:
Follicular phase: This includes the proliferative phase, during which the ovarian follicles develop and mature.
Ovulatory phase: This is the phase when the mature follicle ruptures, releasing the egg.
Luteal phase: This follows ovulation and is characterized by the development of the corpus luteum, which produces hormones to prepare the uterus for possible implantation.
The secretory phase is actually a part of the menstrual cycle, not the ovarian cycle. It refers to the phase of the menstrual cycle when the endometrium thickens in preparation for potential implantation of a fertilized egg.
The proliferative phase, on the other hand, is a phase of the ovarian cycle. It is the early part of the follicular phase, during which the ovarian follicles start to grow and develop in response to hormonal signals.
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complete question:
The maternity nurse is describing the ovarian cycle to a group of nursing students and ask a nursing to identify the phases of the cycle. Which phases stated by the nursing student indicate a need for FURTHER teaching in this area? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
1. Luteal phase
2. Ovulatory phase
3. Secretory phase
4. Proliferative phase
5. Preovulatory phase
a delivery room nurse is caring for a client in labor. the client tells the nurse about feeling something is coming through the vagina. the nurse performs an assessment and notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. the nurse would immediately place the client in which position?
The nurse performs an assessment and notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. The nurse would immediately place the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position.
When the nurse observes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina, it indicates a condition known as umbilical cord prolapse. This is a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent compression and compromise of the cord's blood flow. Placing the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position helps alleviate pressure on the cord and improves fetal oxygenation. These positions are temporary measures until further medical interventions can be initiated by the healthcare team. It is crucial to notify the healthcare provider and mobilize resources promptly to ensure the well-being of both the client and the fetus.
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polit, ch 16: the nurse researcher is examining how spread out the data is. which are measures of variability?
the nurse researcher is examining how spread out the data is. Measures of variability is : Standard deviation and variance (option B)
Standard deviation and variance are both statistical measures that indicate the spread or dispersion of data. They provide information about how much the data points deviate from the mean or average. Standard deviation is the square root of the variance and is commonly used as a measure of variability in a dataset. It tells us how much the values in the dataset vary on average from the mean.
Range, which represents the difference between the highest and lowest values in a dataset, is also a measure of variability but it is not included in the options provided. Deviation scores, which indicate how much each data point differs from the mean, are not measures of variability on their own but are used in the calculation of standard deviation and variance.
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complete question:
The nurse researcher is examining how spread out the data is. Which are measures of variability?
A) Range and deviation scores
B) Standard deviation and variance
C) Standard deviation and deviation scores
D) Range and variance
the nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on phenobarbital. the nurse anticipates which assessment finding with this client?
In a client who has overdosed on phenobarbital, the nurse anticipates various assessment findings, including:
CNS depression: The client may exhibit drowsiness, lethargy, confusion, or even coma due to the sedative effects of phenobarbital.Respiratory depression: Phenobarbital overdose can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to shallow or slow breathing.Hypotension: The client may have low blood pressure due to the medication's effect on the cardiovascular system.Bradycardia: Phenobarbital can slow down the heart rate, resulting in a decreased pulse rate.Hypothermia: The client may have a lower body temperature due to the CNS depressant effects of the medication.It is crucial for the nurse to promptly recognize these assessment findings, initiate appropriate interventions such as airway support and monitoring vital signs, and notify the healthcare provider for further management and treatment of phenobarbital overdose.
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a patient with low back pain asks what non medical treatments can be used to help with the discomfort. which complementary and alternative therapies does the nurse discuss with patient? select all that apply.
The nurse should explain to the patient that this diagnostic test "measures nerve damage." In order to detect nerve injury, nerve conduction studies (NCS) analyse the electrical nerve impulse. Hence (1) is thge correct option.
A myelogram reveals whether herniated discs are pressing on the spinal cord or nerves. Measured by electromyography (EMG), electrical impulses within muscle tissue are quantified. Lumbago, which derives its name from the lumbar portion of the spine, is another word for back discomfort. Back pain is typically mechanical in nature and can be treated with activity reduction, rest, ice, and heat. X-rays display the vertebral anatomy and contour of the joints. In order to remove bone fragments, foreign objects, herniated discs, or broken vertebrae that appear to be compressing the spine, surgery is frequently required.
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A patient with low back pain asks why nerve conduction studies are prescribed. What explanation should the nurse provide to the patient relative to this diagnostic test?
1) "It measures damage to nerves."
2) "It shows pressure on nerves from herniated disks."
3) "It measures electrical impulses within muscle tissue."
4) "It shows the structure of the vertebrae and joint outlines."
a 36-year-old woman presents to the ed with sudden onset of left-sided chest pain and mild shortness of breath that began the night before. she was able to fall asleep without difficulty but woke up in the morning with persistent pain that is worsened upon taking a deep breath. she walked up the stairs at home and became very short of breath, which made her come to the ed. two weeks ago, she took a 7-hour flight from europe and since then has left-sided calf pain and swelling. what is the most common ecg finding for this patient's presentation?
The most common ECG finding for this patient's presentation is the presence of sinus tachycardia.
Sinus tachycardia is characterized by a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute originating from the sinus node. In this case, the patient's symptoms, including sudden-onset left-sided chest pain, mild shortness of breath, and worsened pain upon deep breath, along with the history of a recent long-haul flight and left-sided calf pain and swelling, raise suspicion for a pulmonary embolism (PE).
Sinus tachycardia is often seen in patients with PE as a compensatory response to decreased oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. However, further diagnostic testing, such as a CT pulmonary angiogram or ventilation-perfusion scan, would be necessary to confirm the diagnosis of PE.
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the pharmacology instructor is teaching about sulfonamides and informs the students that these drugs are used to control infections caused by which bacteria?
Sulfonamides are a class of antibiotics that are used to control infections caused by bacteria. They work by inhibiting the growth and reproduction of bacteria by targeting an enzyme called dihydropteroate synthetase, which is necessary for the bacteria to produce folic acid.
Sulfonamides were one of the first classes of antibiotics to be developed and were introduced in the 1930s. They are still used today to treat a variety of bacterial infections, including urinary tract infections, respiratory tract infections, and certain types of meningitis.
However, it is important to note that sulfonamides are not effective against bacteria that have developed resistance to this class of antibiotics. In addition, sulfonamides can cause side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, and skin rash, and should be used with caution in patients with certain medical conditions, such as kidney or liver disease.
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the nurse is completing the admission assessment of a 3-year-old who is admitted with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. which assessment finding is evidence that the child is experiencing icp?
Uneven and sluggish pupillary responses. In conclusion, a 3-year-old patient with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus exhibits a larger head circumference and drooping fontanels on physical examination.
An admission assessment for a 3-year-old who has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis is being completed by the nurse. Before graduating from the majority of nursing programmes, students must take and pass the HESI exit exam. 850 or more is typically regarded as a good result, while the minimum score needed to graduate varies from programme to programme. Scores on the HESI Exit Exam can range from 0 to 1500. The HESI score ranges from 850 to 900, with 900 being ideal.
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the nurse is careful to apply only the prescribed amount of ointment to the skin of a 2-month-old infant. how is infant skin different from adult skin?
When applying ointment to an infant's skin, it is important to use only the prescribed amount and to be careful not to get the ointment in the infant's eyes or mouth.
Infant skin is different from adult skin in several ways. Some of the key differences include:
Thicker skin: Infant skin is thicker and more robust than adult skin, which helps to protect the delicate tissues of the body from injury and infection.
Higher water content: Infant skin has a higher water content than adult skin, which helps to keep the skin hydrated and soft.
More sensitive: Infant skin is more sensitive than adult skin, which means it is more prone to irritation and damage.
Easier to damage: Because infant skin is thinner and more delicate than adult skin, it is easier to damage or irritate. This makes it important to be extra careful when caring for an infant's skin.
Different skin care needs: Infant skin has different skin care needs than adult skin. For example, it is important to use gentle, fragrance-free products that are free from harsh chemicals when caring for an infant's skin.
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the nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank for administration to a client with anemia. the nurse has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse would assess which priority item?
The nurse has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse, just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse assesses Vital signs, option A.
A blood transfusion is the intravenous injection of blood products into a person's circulation. Transfusions are used to replace blood components that have been lost in various medical conditions. While whole blood was used in early transfusions, plasma, platelets, red blood cells, white blood cells, and other blood components are typically used in modern medicine.
Red platelets (RBC) contain hemoglobin, and supply the cells of the body with oxygen. White blood cells are a part of the immune system and fight infections, but they are rarely used in transfusions. Plasma is the "yellowish" fluid piece of blood, which goes about as a cradle, and contains proteins and significant substances required for the body's general wellbeing. The body is prevented from bleeding because platelets are involved in blood clotting. Before these parts were known, specialists accepted that blood was homogeneous. Many patients died as a result of being given blood that wasn't compatible with them because of this scientific misunderstanding.
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Complete question:
The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse assesses which priority item?
a. Vital signs
b. Skin color
c. Urine output
D. Latest hematocrit level
a nurse cares for older adult clients in a long-term care facility. the nurse notices that many of the clients have chronic anemia. what long-term impact does the nurse associate with this population and the presence of anemia?
The long-term impact does the nurse associate with chronic anemia is Decreased cognitive function.
Mental capabilities are mental cycles which empower people to secure, store, interaction, and use data. People are able to carry out intricate activities like problem-solving and planning thanks to these procedures.
The following are some examples of cognitive functions:
Perception: Discernment happens when one sees a new thing in the climate and one's mind processes the data to conclude whether it is a danger.Attention: Focused attention, sustained attention, selective attention, alternating attention, and divided attention are all types of attention. The focused and selective varieties are two of the most well-known types: Focused attention enables a person to completely immerse themselves in a task, whereas selective attention enables a person to concentrate on specific tasks in the midst of distractions.Memory: There are two types of memory: short-term memory and long-term memory. While long-term memory can last for months or years, short-term memory only lasts about 20 seconds.Learn more about cognitive function:
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the nurse is assisting in caring for a client with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (mods). the nurse understands that which intervention is most important in the care of clients with this syndrome?
The nurse understands that the most important intervention in the care of clients with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is providing supportive care and managing the underlying cause.
MODS is a severe condition characterized by the dysfunction of multiple organs, often resulting from a systemic inflammatory response. The nurse's priority is to stabilize the client's condition and provide appropriate interventions to support failing organs.
This may include administering medications, such as vasopressors or antibiotics, maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance, ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation, monitoring vital signs and organ function, and coordinating interdisciplinary care. By addressing the underlying cause and providing comprehensive supportive care, the nurse aims to prevent further organ damage and optimize the client's chances of recovery.
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a patient with parkinson's disease is prescribed carbidopa/levodopa (sinemet). which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to be most affected with this medication?
The clinical manifestation that the nurse should expect to be most affected by carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) in a patient with Parkinson's disease is tremors.
Carbidopa/levodopa is a medication that is commonly used to treat the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, which is a disorder of the nervous system that affects movement. It works by increasing the levels of dopamine in the brain, which helps to improve movement and reduce the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
One of the most common symptoms of Parkinson's disease is tremors, which are involuntary movements that can occur in the hands, arms, legs, or head. Carbidopa/levodopa can help to reduce the severity of tremors in patients with Parkinson's disease, making them less noticeable and less disruptive to daily activities. Other symptoms of Parkinson's disease that can be improved with carbidopa/levodopa include muscle stiffness, difficulty with balance and coordination, and slow movement.
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a depressed client is found unconscious on the floor in the dayroom of a health care facility. the nurse finds several empty bottles of a prescribed tricyclic antidepressant lying near the client. which is the priority action of the nurse?
The nurse will make calling the emergency response team her first priority. No matter how much is consumed, tricyclic antidepressants have the potential to be lethal if taken in excess. Hence (b) is the correct option.
After an overdose, life-threatening symptoms can appear. With a tricyclic antidepressant overdose, immediate emergency medical care and heart monitoring are required. Options that postpone immediate action would not be the top priorities. Vomiting is not made a customer who is unconscious. This clinical practise guideline was created by the American Psychological Association to offer suggestions for the treatment of depression. It was assumed that the patient had overdosed on the drugs because empty bottles of both were discovered on the floor close to him at his residence.
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A depressed client is found unconscious on the floor in the dayroom of a health care facility. The nurse finds several empty bottles of a prescribed tricyclic antidepressant lying near the client. Which is the priority action of the nurse?
A. Call the Poison Control Center.
B. Call the emergency response team.
C. Determine the exact number of pills taken.
D. Induce vomiting and notify the health care provider.
the nurse assistant suspects that a resident who is dying is approaching death because of which signs and symptoms?
The nurse assistant suspects that a resident who is dying is approaching death based on several signs and symptoms.
These may include significant changes in the resident's vital signs, such as a weak or irregular pulse, decreased blood pressure, and shallow or irregular breathing. Other indicators may include profound lethargy or unresponsiveness, decreased urine output, mottling or coolness of the extremities, changes in skin color, and decreased gastrointestinal function.
Additionally, the resident may exhibit increased restlessness, agitation, or periods of withdrawal. These signs and symptoms collectively suggest that the resident's body systems are gradually shutting down, indicating the approach of end-of-life stages.
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an older client with a history of hyperparathyroidism and severe osteoporosis is hospitalized. the nurse caring for the client plans to address which problem first?
When caring for an older client with a history of hyperparathyroidism and severe osteoporosis, the nurse should prioritize addressing the problem of increased risk for pathological fractures.
Severe osteoporosis, coupled with the effects of hyperparathyroidism, can significantly weaken the client's bones, making them susceptible to fractures. Pathological fractures can lead to immobility, pain, and potential complications.
By addressing this problem first, the nurse aims to prevent further bone damage and promote the client's mobility and overall well-being. This may involve implementing measures such as fall precautions, proper body mechanics, assisting with mobility, and providing education on fracture prevention and safety measures.
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the nurse would report which assessment finding to the primary health care provider (phcp) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism?
The nurse would report the following assessment finding to the primary healthcare provider (PHCP) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism:
Any signs of contraindications or high risk for bleeding, such as recent surgery, trauma, or active bleeding disorders. Thrombolytic therapy carries a significant risk of causing or exacerbating bleeding, and it is crucial to identify any factors that may increase this risk before initiating treatment.
Reporting the presence of these contraindications or bleeding risk factors to the PHCP helps in making an informed decision about the appropriateness and safety of thrombolytic therapy. Close monitoring of vital signs, laboratory values, and any changes in bleeding status is necessary throughout the treatment process.
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ceftazidime 750 mg IV every 12 hours is prescribed for a client with an infection. The directions on the label of the 750mg vial instructs the nurse to reconstitute with 100ml sterile water. The reconstituted medication provides how many mg/ml? 0.75
The reconstituted medication provides 7.5mg/ml.
Ceftazidime 750 mg IV every 12 hours is prescribed for a client with an infection. The directions on the label of the 750mg vial instructs the nurse to reconstitute with 100ml sterile water. The reconstituted medication provides how many mg/ml?
The formula to calculate the concentration of a solution is as follows: Concentration = (Amount of solute ÷ Volume of solvent) Reconstituted Ceftazidime = 750mg. The diluent is 100ml sterile water. By substituting these values in the above formula, we get the following result: Concentration = (Amount of solute ÷ Volume of solvent)= (750mg ÷ 100ml)= 7.5mg/ml Therefore, the reconstituted medication provides 7.5mg/ml.
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true or false most water soluble vitamins such as thiamin can be stored and therefore it may take years before an individual experiences
Most water-soluble vitamins, including thiamin, cannot be stored in large amounts in the body. False
These vitamins are not readily stored in significant quantities, and any excess is typically excreted through urine. Therefore, regular intake of water-soluble vitamins is necessary to maintain adequate levels in the body.
Deficiencies in these vitamins can occur relatively quickly, within weeks or months, if the dietary intake is insufficient or if there are other factors that affect absorption or utilization. Unlike fat-soluble vitamins, which can be stored in the body for longer periods, water-soluble vitamins require consistent intake to prevent deficiencies.
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Complete Question:
Most water-soluble vitamins, such as thiamin, can be stored, and therefore it may take years before an individual experiences deficiencies in these vitamins?True or false
the nurse is administering magnesium sulfate to a client for preeclampsia at 34 weeks' gestation. what is the priority nursing action for this client?
The priority nursing action for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia at 34 weeks' gestation is to closely monitor the client's vital signs, particularly blood pressure, respiratory rate, and heart rate.
Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but it can also cause side effects such as respiratory depression, hypotension, and bradycardia. Continuous monitoring of vital signs allows the nurse to identify any changes or signs of adverse reactions promptly.
Additionally, close monitoring helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely intervention if necessary, helping to prevent complications associated with magnesium sulfate administration.
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which person presenting for treatment in an emergency department in the united states is most likely to have typhoid fever? the person who has:
The person most likely to have typhoid fever when presenting for treatment in an emergency department is someone who has recently traveled to a region where typhoid fever is endemic or prevalent.
Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi, which is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water in areas with poor sanitation. Individuals who have visited countries with inadequate hygiene and sanitation practices, particularly in regions of Asia, Africa, and Latin America, are at higher risk of acquiring typhoid fever.
Therefore, a person who has a recent travel history to an endemic area and presents with symptoms like high fever, abdominal pain, and gastrointestinal disturbances should be considered a potential typhoid fever case and receive appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment.
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the nurse is preparing to hang the first bag of parenteral nutrition (pn) solution via the central line of an assigned client. the nurse would plan to obtain which most essential piece of equipment before hanging the solution?
Before hanging the solution, the nurse would make plans to get the Glucometer, a crucial piece of equipment. Controlling infection is among the most crucial aspects of TPN infusion.
TPN must be supplied via an EID (IV pump) and specific IV filter tubing is needed for the amino acids and lipid emulsion to lessen the chance of particles getting into the patient. Due to its bigger size and superficial position, the basilic vein is preferred. The catheter passes through the basilic and travels through the axillary and subclavian veins before landing in the superior vena cava. When TPN is given for a few weeks to months, PICC lines could be used.
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a client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with an upper gastrointestinal (gi) bleed. the nurse would expect which condition to be the primary cause?
A client admitted to the medical-surgical unit with an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed is likely to have a condition known as peptic ulcer disease or gastric ulcers as the primary cause.
Peptic ulcers are sores that develop in the lining of the stomach or small intestine and are caused by a combination of factors, including the use of certain medications (such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or NSAIDs), chronic stress, and a bacterium called Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori). Symptoms of a peptic ulcer may include abdominal pain, particularly in the upper abdomen, nausea, and vomiting. In some cases, the ulcer may bleed, causing the client to experience blood in their stool or vomit.
The nurse would expect to assess the client for signs and symptoms of peptic ulcer disease, such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse would also expect to monitor the client's vital signs, blood pressure, and fluid status, and administer medications as ordered to manage the client's pain and prevent further bleeding.
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the nurse will encourage a client with cancer and unintentional weight loss to drink which kind of milk?
Answer:
low-fat milk
Explanation:
which option is a nursing-sensitive indicator that the nurses can use to measure patient safety and quality for the unit
One nursing-sensitive indicator that nurses can use to measure patient safety and quality for the unit is the incidence of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs).
HAIs are infections that patients acquire while receiving treatment in a healthcare facility. They can significantly impact patient outcomes and increase healthcare costs. By tracking and monitoring the incidence of HAIs, nurses can assess the effectiveness of infection control practices, identify areas for improvement, and implement interventions to reduce the occurrence of these infections.
This indicator reflects the quality of nursing care in terms of infection prevention and control, ultimately contributing to improved patient safety and outcomes.
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Complete Question:
Which option is a nursing-sensitive indicator that nurses can use to measure patient safety and quality for the unit?
a clienet who developed acute pyelonephritis asks the nurse what may haved caused the infection. which information will be included
The nurse should provide the client with accurate information regarding the potential causes of acute pyelonephritis. The response should include the following key points:
Acute pyelonephritis is commonly caused by a bacterial infection, most often from bacteria such as Escherichia coli (E. coli) that ascend from the urinary tract into the kidneys. Risk factors for developing the infection may include urinary tract obstruction, urinary catheterization, urinary stasis, pregnancy, diabetes, and a history of recurrent urinary tract infections.
It is important for the client to understand the importance of prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics to resolve the infection and prevent complications.
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Complete Question:
A client who has developed acute pyelonephritis asks the nurse what may have caused the infection. What information will be included in the nurse's response?
which questions are critical for the nurse to ask during each step in the nursing process? select all that apply. were patient goals met? can interventions be universally applied? is collected data thorough and accurate? could interventions affect the patient negatively? are all underlying factors addressed in the plan of care?
During each step of the nursing process, the following questions are critical for the nurse to ask:
Were patient goals met?
Is collected data thorough and accurate?
Could interventions affect the patient negatively?
Are all underlying factors addressed in the plan of care?
These questions help guide the nurse in evaluating the effectiveness of care, ensuring the accuracy and completeness of data, considering potential risks or adverse effects of interventions, and ensuring that all relevant factors are addressed in the plan of care. Assessing goal achievement, data quality, intervention implications, and comprehensive care planning are important aspects of the nursing process that promote patient-centered care and positive outcomes.
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Full Question: which questions are critical for the nurse to ask during each step in the nursing process? select all that apply.
were patient goals met? can interventions be universally applied? is collected data thorough and accurate? could interventions affect the patient negatively? are all underlying factors addressed in the plan of care?which physiological factors can place an 83-year-old client at risk for acute kidney injury? select all that apply.
Several physiological factors can place an 83-year-old client at risk for acute kidney injury (AKI). The following factors are known to increase the risk:
Advanced age: Older adults, like the 83-year-old client, have a higher susceptibility to kidney injury due to age-related changes in kidney function.Reduced renal blood flow: Conditions like hypotension, dehydration, or heart failure can lead to inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, compromising their function.Chronic medical conditions: Pre-existing conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease can impair renal function and increase the risk of AKI.Medications: Certain medications, especially those metabolized by the kidneys or with potential nephrotoxic effects, can contribute to kidney injury in older adults.It is important to assess and manage these factors to prevent or minimize the risk of acute kidney injury in the elderly population.
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